Below are 50 PMP Questions and Answers designed to help you prepare effectively for the exam. Explanations for all correct answers are provided at the end of the questions to enhance your understanding and boost your confidence.
1. During project initiation, the project sponsor asks for a summary of the financial justification for the project. Which document should you provide?
- A. Project Charter
- B. Business Case
- C. Project Management Plan
- D. Risk Register
2. Which of the following is NOT typically a purpose of the project charter?
- A. Formally authorize the project
- B. Define the WBS for the project
- C. Assign responsibility to the project manager
- D. Provide high-level project objectives
3. During stakeholder analysis, you identify a stakeholder who has high power but low interest. What is the recommended strategy for managing this stakeholder?
- A. Keep satisfied
- B. Monitor closely
- C. Manage actively
- D. Keep informed
4. What is the primary benefit of the “identify stakeholders” process?
- A. Determining stakeholder influence and requirements
- B. Documenting high-level risks
- C. Developing the stakeholder engagement plan
- D. Creating the assumptions log
5. A project manager is tasked with ensuring the project aligns with organizational strategic goals. What document provides this alignment?
- A. Project Scope Statement
- B. Benefits Management Plan
- C. Enterprise Environmental Factors
- D. Project Charter
6. In an agile project, who is primarily responsible for prioritizing work items in the backlog?
- A. Scrum Master
- B. Development Team
- C. Product Owner
- D. Agile Coach
7. Which of the following is typically a high-level deliverable created during project initiation?
- A. Scope Baseline
- B. Project Charter
- C. Issue Log
- D. Work Breakdown Structure
8. Which input is necessary for the “develop project charter” process?
- A. Organizational Process Assets
- B. Milestone List
- C. Issue Log
- D. Resource Calendar
9. What is the primary output of the “define scope” process?
- A. Scope Baseline
- B. Project Management Plan
- C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
- D. Requirements Traceability Matrix
10. A project team is estimating activity durations using a three-point estimation technique. What is the formula for the PERT weighted average?
- A. (O+4M+P)/6(O + 4M + P) / 6(O+4M+P)/6
- B. (O+M+P)/3(O + M + P) / 3(O+M+P)/3
- C. (P−O)/6(P – O) / 6(P−O)/6
- D. 4M+(O+P)/34M + (O + P) / 34M+(O+P)/3
11. Which component of the project management plan defines how scope changes will be managed?
- A. Scope Management Plan
- B. Change Control Plan
- C. Requirements Management Plan
- D. Schedule Management Plan
12. When developing a quality management plan, the team refers to organizational process assets. Which of the following would NOT be considered an organizational process asset?
- A. Quality standards from a previous project
- B. Historical project performance data
- C. Quality assurance policies
- D. Government regulations
13. During risk planning, you categorize risks based on their causes. This is an example of:
- A. Qualitative Risk Analysis
- B. Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)
- C. Quantitative Risk Analysis
- D. Risk Mitigation Planning
14. What is the primary goal of the Plan Procurement Management process?
- A. Select suppliers for the project
- B. Establish guidelines for managing procurements
- C. Issue procurement contracts
- D. Document market research findings
15. A team is planning activities for an agile project and uses velocity as a key planning metric. What does velocity measure?
- A. Time taken to complete a sprint
- B. The number of features delivered in a sprint
- C. The team’s capacity to deliver story points per sprint
- D. The cost of completing a sprint
16. Which of the following is NOT an input to the “develop schedule” process?
- A. Resource Requirements
- B. Project Scope Statement
- C. Activity List
- D. Resource Leveling
17. What is the purpose of the risk register?
- A. Track the implementation of risk responses
- B. Document identified risks and their characteristics
- C. Define strategies for managing risks
- D. Record lessons learned related to risks
18. Which of the following is NOT a technique for defining project activities?
- A. Rolling Wave Planning
- B. Expert Judgment
- C. Critical Path Method
- D. Decomposition
19. When is the stakeholder engagement plan developed?
- A. During the initiating phase
- B. During the planning phase
- C. During the executing phase
- D. During the monitoring and controlling phase
20. A project manager is calculating the contingency reserve. What tool or technique would be most useful for this task?
- A. Expert Judgment
- B. Monte Carlo Analysis
- C. Ishikawa Diagram
- D. Delphi Technique
21. What is the primary purpose of a daily stand-up in agile project management?
- A. Review completed deliverables
- B. Monitor team progress and remove impediments
- C. Evaluate team velocity and adjust iterations
- D. Identify new risks
22. A project manager notices that team members are completing tasks but not updating the task status in the project management software. What should the project manager do?
- A. Update the tasks personally
- B. Provide additional training to the team
- C. Escalate the issue to the sponsor
- D. Remind the team of the importance of real-time updates
23. During execution, a project manager discovers that a contractor has not met a key deliverable deadline. What is the project manager’s next step?
- A. Issue a change request to adjust the schedule
- B. Escalate the issue to the sponsor
- C. Conduct a procurement performance review
- D. Terminate the contractor’s agreement
24. In agile projects, how are deliverables verified and accepted?
- A. During iteration retrospectives
- B. By stakeholders in sprint reviews
- C. During daily stand-ups
- D. By the Product Owner in the project closure phase
25. A conflict arises between two team members regarding task ownership. What is the project manager’s most appropriate action?
- A. Escalate the issue to the functional manager
- B. Apply conflict resolution techniques to address the issue
- C. Reassign tasks to prevent further conflict
- D. Conduct a formal disciplinary review
26. What is the primary focus of earned value management (EVM)?
- A. Estimate activity durations
- B. Track team performance during agile sprints
- C. Measure project performance against scope, cost, and schedule baselines
- D. Evaluate the quality of deliverables
27. A project has a cost performance index (CPI) of 1.1 and a schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.9. What does this indicate?
- A. The project is under budget but behind schedule.
- B. The project is over budget but ahead of schedule.
- C. The project is both under budget and ahead of schedule.
- D. The project is both over budget and behind schedule.
28. A team member informs the project manager that additional resources are needed to stay on schedule. What is the first action the project manager should take?
- A. Request additional budget from the sponsor.
- B. Perform a resource leveling analysis.
- C. Issue a change request for additional resources.
- D. Evaluate the schedule to determine the impact of resource constraints.
29. The control chart for a manufacturing process shows points that are outside the upper control limit. What does this indicate?
- A. The process is within acceptable limits.
- B. The process is statistically out of control.
- C. The process requires no immediate action.
- D. The process is operating at an ideal level of quality.
30. A project is tracking SPI and CPI values regularly. Which tool is the project manager using?
- A. Schedule Network Analysis
- B. Earned Value Management
- C. Resource Leveling
- D. Critical Chain Method
31. A key deliverable is rejected during a formal inspection. What is the best course of action for the project manager?
- A. Adjust the project scope baseline.
- B. Schedule a lessons-learned session.
- C. Document the issue and initiate corrective actions.
- D. Communicate the rejection to the sponsor immediately.
32. While performing qualitative risk analysis, you rank risks based on probability and impact. This approach:
- A. Requires extensive mathematical modeling.
- B. Creates a prioritized risk list for action.
- C. Relies exclusively on stakeholder input.
- D. Focuses on cost over schedule risks.
33. A stakeholder requests additional functionality beyond the project’s approved scope. The project manager should:
- A. Accept the request if it will benefit the project.
- B. Escalate the request to the project sponsor.
- C. Submit the request to the Change Control Board (CCB).
- D. Include the change in the next progress report.
34. What is the primary purpose of variance analysis in project monitoring?
- A. Identify areas where processes can be streamlined.
- B. Determine the root cause of deviations from the baseline.
- C. Develop responses for high-priority risks.
- D. Create contingency reserves for future phases.
35. The project manager receives a report showing CPI = 0.9 and SPI = 1.1. What should they prioritize?
- A. Controlling costs
- B. Revising the schedule
- C. Managing risks
- D. Accelerating project activities
36. A project manager notices that changes are being implemented without approval. What process is being bypassed?
- A. Integrated Change Control
- B. Validate Scope
- C. Perform Quality Control
- D. Direct and Manage Project Work
37. During control quality, a project manager identifies a recurring defect in deliverables. What tool would help determine the root cause?
- A. Pareto Chart
- B. Control Chart
- C. Ishikawa Diagram
- D. Histogram
38. During project closure, the team realizes that an issue from execution remains unresolved. What is the best action?
- A. Close the project without addressing the issue.
- B. Document the issue in the lessons learned register.
- C. Reopen the project to resolve the issue.
- D. Request additional funding to address the issue.
39. What is the primary purpose of a final project audit?
- A. Validate the project’s compliance with quality standards.
- B. Formally release team resources.
- C. Assess the project’s success and identify lessons learned.
- D. Archive all project documents.
40. In an agile project, the retrospective meeting serves what purpose?
- A. Approve completed deliverables for the sprint.
- B. Plan the next sprint’s tasks.
- C. Discuss team performance and process improvements.
- D. Reassess the project backlog priorities.
41. Which document captures all details of project deliverables handed over to operations?
- A. Project Management Plan
- B. Final Report
- C. Transition Plan
- D. Benefits Management Plan
42. A project team has completed all deliverables, and the project sponsor signs off on final acceptance. What is the next step?
- A. Conduct a stakeholder review meeting.
- B. Update the project charter.
- C. Release project resources and close procurements.
- D. Perform a root cause analysis on unresolved issues.
43. During a final stakeholder meeting, a key stakeholder expresses dissatisfaction with the project outcome. What should the project manager do?
- A. Escalate the concern to the sponsor.
- B. Document the feedback in the final report.
- C. Revise the deliverables to meet the stakeholder’s expectations.
- D. Exclude the stakeholder from the closure process.
44. Which activity is NOT part of the Close Project or Phase process?
- A. Conducting a post-project review
- B. Validating scope with stakeholders
- C. Ensuring deliverables are accepted
- D. Updating the risk register
45. What is a key benefit of a lessons learned register?
- A. Documents the root cause of project risks
- B. Provides a historical record for future projects
- C. Validates the success criteria of the project
- D. Defines the transition process to operations
46. In an agile project, what is the primary role of the Scrum Master?
- A. Define acceptance criteria for user stories.
- B. Prioritize the backlog to ensure business value.
- C. Remove impediments and support the development team.
- D. Approve sprint goals and deliverables.
47. A product owner adjusts backlog priorities during a sprint. How should the Scrum Master respond?
- A. Allow the adjustment if it aligns with stakeholder needs.
- B. Prevent changes until the sprint is complete.
- C. Escalate the issue to the project sponsor.
- D. Update the team on the new priorities immediately.
48. Which of the following is an output of iteration planning?
- A. Sprint Backlog
- B. Product Roadmap
- C. Definition of Done
- D. Burnup Chart
49. In agile, what is the purpose of a “spike”?
- A. Test the feasibility of a technical solution.
- B. Address a high-priority risk during sprint planning.
- C. Estimate user stories during backlog refinement.
- D. Resolve team conflicts related to task allocation.
50. During sprint reviews, the development team demonstrates completed features. Who is responsible for accepting these features?
- A. Product Owner
- B. Scrum Master
- C. Stakeholders
- D. Team Lead
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